DGCA & EASA Module 13 - Aeroplane Aerodynamics Structure & Systems (B2) Question - Part -2
DGCA & EASA Module 13 - Aeroplane Aerodynamics Structure & Systems (B2) Que-Ans - Part -2
Dutch Roll affects
a) pitch and roll simultaneously
b) pitch and yaw simultaneously
Ans c) yaw and roll simultaneously
A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna
a) will move up
b) will move down
c) will not move
Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to
a) length of the cable
b) transmitter power output
c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna
When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where a D.R. compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass
Ans b) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made simultaneously on each heading
c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made at any one heading only
Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 degrees
Ans b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees
Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called
a) apparent error
Ans b) residual error
c) index error
Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce
a) Parallax error
Ans b) Surface reflection
c) Static to avoid dust attraction
Versine signal is governed by
a) roll
Ans b) pitch
c) yaw
Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by
a) 4%
Ans b) 7%
c) 10.321%
A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical cables carrying electrical current is
a) 20 inches
Ans b) 24 inches
c) 28 inches
The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out with
a) an inclinometer
b) micrometer
c) spirit level
Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by
Ans a) Tachogenerator
b) Feedback from control surface
c) Feedback from servo motor
When an hydraulic system is un pressurized, the position of flight control surfaces are
a) down
b) neutral
c) droop
Radar beamwidth improves
a) range resolution
b) range accuracy
Ans c) bearing resolution
A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output voltage?
a) 115V
b) 345V
Ans c) 460V
The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2 inches dia. This is the
a) opening dia. of pitot head
b) internal dia of pitot head where air stagnates
c) external dia of pitot head
On a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication
Ans a) a set screw is provided for zero adjustment
b) it does not have any adjustment
c) a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments
A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft,a preset potentiometer is fitted
a) in series with the field winding
b) in parallel with the field winding
c) in series with the generator output
When can wing spoilers be used?
a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn
b) As ground spoilers on landing
c) To assist the elevators
When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder
a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb
c) set the rad alt to 0 feet
Dutch Roll affects
a) pitch and roll simultaneously
b) pitch and yaw simultaneously
c) yaw and roll simultaneously
A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna
a) will move up
b) will move down
c) will not move
Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to
a) length of the cable
b) transmitter power output
c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna
When more than one D.R.Compass is fitted on an aircraft or where
a D.R.compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
a) Only the master compass reading and adjustment carried out and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass.
Ans b) All reading and adjustments fo reach compass should be made simultaneously on each heading.
c) All reading and adjustment for each compass should be made at any one heading only.
Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for entry on the deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 Degree
Ans b) 3 Degree
c) 5 Degree
Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called
a) apparent error
Ans b) residual error
c) index error
Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce
a) parallax error.
Ans b) surface reflection.
c) static to avoid dust attraction.
Versine signal is governed by
a) roll
Ans b) pitch
c) yaw
Increasing the real load primarily
a) decreases frequency
b) decreases output voltage
Ans c) increases output voltage and increases frequency
Inductive reactive load causes
a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
Ans c) increase in torque only
The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of
a) apparent power from the generator that does work
b) reactive power from the generator that does work
Ans c) real power from the generator that does work
The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is by
Ans a) angle of swash plate
b) IDG
c) restriction valve
Differential protection in an AC system protects against
a) A reverse current flowing from the battery
b) short circuits
Ans c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
Ans a) stationary
b) rotating at idle
c) rotating at Nsync
One of the main purposes of a CSD is to
Ans a) enable generators to be paralleled
b) prevent engine overload
c) maintain constant load on the generator
In a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely consequence is
Ans a) activation of the time delay circuit
b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs
c) energise the bus tie relay
If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an indication that the
Ans a) CSD drives shaft had sheared
b) phase sequence detection circuit has operated
c) bus tie interlock is inoperative
Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases, generator output voltage will
a) decrease and amperage output increases
b) increases and amperage output increases
Ans c) remain constant and amperage output increases
Battery trays are
a) metal for earthing purposes
Ans b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte
When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in
a) parallel
b) series
Ans c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option
What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?
a) Ground or earth
b) Positive to battery relay
Ans c) Positive to external power relay
Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is
a) 71 degrees F
Ans b) 144 Degrees F
c) 144 Degrees C
If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by
Ans a) constant voltage
b) constant current
c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage
Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA
a) Chapter 24 Section 21
Ans b) Chapter 24 Section 31
c) Chapter 31 Section 21
In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is
a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing length
Ans b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact
c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length
The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is
Ans a) stationary
b) fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating
In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by
a) transformers and transistors
b) diodes and transformers
Ans c) zeners and transistors
Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by
a) voltage coil
b) current coil
Ans c) voltage and current coil
Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere
a) increase with the frequency
b) decrease with frequency
c) is not affected by frequency
What is lapse rate?
a) Pressure changes with altitude
Ans b) Temperature changes with altitude
c) Density changes with altitude
Increase in speed of spoilers is needed when
a) the flaps are lowered
b) at higher speeds
c) the landing gear is extended
What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery?
a) The outside temperature
b) Electrolyte temperature
c) Charge state of the battery
What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?
a) Elevator up, left aileron down
b) Elevator down, right aileron down
c) Elevator up, right aileron down
Where is the placement of a mercury switch?
a) Outer gimbal
b) Gyro case
c) Instrument case
DC power into the GCU comes from
a) main battery bus
b) main battery bus and ground service
c) ground service
In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains
a) 1 capsule
Ans b) 2 capsules
c) 3 capsules
If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the control surface will
a) move up
b) move down
c) remain at the same place
Spring tabs
a) cannot be adjusted in flight
b) can be adjusted in the flight deck
c) cannot be adjusted
Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain
If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the
a) normal axis
b) lateral axis
Ans c) longitudinal axis
LOC signal modulation is
a) 50 %
Ans b) 20 %
c) 10 %
After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter would
a) continue to roll
b) increases roll
c) come back to level flight
What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?
a) ASI
b) Machmeter
c) VSI
If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will
a) decrease
Ans b) increase
c) remain the same
A Master Warning is issued when
a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs
b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire & trip occurs
How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis?
a) Elevator s
Ans b) Elevons
c) Ailerons
If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine generator give?
Ans a) Up Elevator
b) Left rudder
c) Down elevator
What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have?
a) Increases lift & reduces drag
Ans b) Increases lift and drag
c) Increase lift only
What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have?
Ans a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds
b) Reduces takeoff speeds only
c) Reduces landing speeds only
Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline?
a) Heading error
b) Course error
c) Radio deviation
What does a vibration type sensor measure?
a) Maximum deflection
Ans b) Frequency of deflections
c) Direction of flexing
On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock circuit?
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) E and F
Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation?
a) Bellows or diaphragm
b) No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient
c) Piston and oil
The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as
Ans a) Coefficient B
b) Coefficient A
c) Coefficient C
If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen to the precession?
a) Increase
b) Remain unaffected
c) Decrease
A 'q' feel system supplies
a) aerodynamic damping
b) the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed
c) control movement effort relief
ADF operates within which frequencies?
Ans a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz
b) 118 MHz - 132 MHz
c) 32 KHz - 64 KHz
Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used?
a) Roll out
Ans b) Flare
c) Touchdown
FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is
a) DME Freq
b) LNAV
Ans c) CRZ
Mode C response is
a) 21microseconds
b) 12 microseconds
c) 8 microseconds
Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude reporting system?
Ans a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel
b) Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary
c) Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table
An uncorrected ADI is affected by
a) climb
b) descent
c) roll
A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires
a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites
b) 2 ground stations and 4 satellites
c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites
The term `circling current' refers to
a) AC generators
b) AC and DC Generators
c) DC generators
Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and you only have one to dispatch the aircraft.
Where do you fit it?
a) LH side
b) RH side
c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter)
If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel
a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line
b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line
Ans c) aircraft flies in circles
Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via the
a) IDG
b) CSD
c) swash plate
WX radar display the time base is
Ans a) saw tooth wave form
b) trapezoidal wave form
c) rectangular wave form
Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost, following the FD commands. Aircraft will
a) stay on centre of course
b) stay parallel to course
c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing
Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is
a) to increase GS signal
b) to decrease GS signal
c) to maintain GS signal
A helicopter needs to re-trim
Ans a) indication is shown on the API
b) indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI
c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator
API Trim pointers are fed by
a) a synchro
b) an RVDT
c) an LVDT
VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximum power transfer is
a) 50 ohms
b) 25 to 75 ohms
c) 129 ohms
Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer is
a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure
b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure
c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure
In audio clipping
a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal
b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels
Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses
Ans a) attenuation first then amplification
b) amplification first then attenuation
c) no attenuation but amplification
DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
a) Decoder
b) Blocking oscillator
c) Integrator
Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohm meter the reading will be
a) 80 ohms
b) 200 ohms
c) more than 20 mega ohms
Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect
a) ADI
b) Flight director computer
c) both of the above
A HUMS in a helicopter is
a) a vibration analysis system
b) a system which monitors time period of components in service and warns of a premature failure
c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade
When the flaps are lowered
a) the lift vector moves forward
b) the lift vector moves rearward
c) there is no effect on the lift vector
At take off, if the flaps are lowered there is a
Ans a) large increase in lift and drag
b) small increase in lift and drag
c) large increase in lift and small increase in drag
In a large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a long aerial feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected
a) between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end)
b) between the aerial and ATU
c) between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end)
With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim indicator will indicate
a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop
b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning
c) the trim system is out of datum
Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually
a) dependent on aircraft altitude
b) 100%
c) chosen as a compromise
With no.1 h.f. system transmitting the interlock circuit
a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only
b) allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive
Ans c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive
MLS azimuth range is
a) +/- 30
b) +/- 42
c) +/- 62
Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI indicates
a) 90
Ans b) 180
c) 0
In an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when
Ans a) flaps are retracted
b) landing gear up and locked
c) flaps extended
An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microseconds after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the station?
Ans a) 96 nautical miles
b) 100 nautical miles
c) 104 nautical miles
If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the aircraft?
Ans a) 10
b) 5
c) 2.5
What frequency range does ACARS operate in?
a) 2-30 MHz
Ans b) 118-136 MHz
c) 4-5 GHz
An FM signal would have it's sideband signals
a) above the carrier signal
b) below the carrier signal
Ans c) No sidebands present
On an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning
a) would initiate a Go Around
b) audio and Visual warning
c) visual warning only
A Doppler VOR station's transmissions
Ans a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
b) can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiver
c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver
Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying pressure
a) to the control wheel
b) to the control column
c) to the rudder pedals
On a modern aircraft about to stall
a) the outboard slats extend automatically
b) engine power increases automatically
c) the flaps retract automatically
Wing can spoilers be used?
a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn
b) As ground spoilers on landing
Ans c) To assist the elevators
When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder
a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb
c) set the rad alt to 0 feet
How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
Ans a) 21 micro seconds
b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds
What does the Radar contour button do?
Ans a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power
c) Alter the video amplifier
A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the target?
a) 12 miles
Ans b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles
With a spring balance control system you can
a) move the control surface on the ground
b) move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) not move the control surface on the ground
The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is
Ans a) 50 ohms
b) 20 ohms
c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively
Alert Height is when
a) a decision of whether to land is made
Ans b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made
If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder
a) remains at the neutral position
b) controls the aircraft in trim
c) remains in the previous position
For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement?
a) Lateral
b) Longitudinal
c) Normal
Versine is used in which channel?
Ans a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw
A Master Warning is issued when
Ans a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs
b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire & generator trip occurs
Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations?
Ans a) Visual inspections
b) Insulation testing
c) CMC fault indications
An RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
a) Move left
b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right
An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030 relative to the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating?
a) 030
b) 060
c) 090
When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve?
a) 12,000ft
b) 5,000ft
Ans c) 18,000ft
If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be?
Ans a) Left Rudder
b) Right Rudder
c) No Rudder
If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what will happen to the tab?
a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface
b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface
Ans c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the surface
At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured?
Ans a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe
b) Combustion chamber and jet pipe
c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber
If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get?
Ans a) Stick Shaker
b) Stick Nudger
c) EICAS warning
Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to
a) nose up
b) go one wing down
c) nose down
On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the localiser signal?
Ans a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift
b) It will fly in circles
c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on
If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation
a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount
Ans b) it will fly in circles
c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on
What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots instruments with excess deviation?
a) Red
b) Amber
c) White
In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear?
Ans a) FM
b) Pulse
c) FM and Pulse
What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a turn?
a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input signal
b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete
c) They Disappear out of view
If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about?
Ans a) Normal
b) Longitudinal
c) Lateral
The neutral shift system augments control of the
a) stabiliser
Ans b) elevator
c) spoilers
On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes
Ans a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move up
b) all the elevators on each wing to move up
c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up
What are ground spoilers used for?
Ans a) To dump lift
b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop
c) To slow the aircraft
If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in this command?
Ans a) Control Wheel
b) Control Column
c) Rudder Pedals
What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?
Ans a) 3000 psi
b) 1000 psi
c) 300 psi
If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable you must
Ans a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but larger
b) defer the defect until correct spares are available
c) splice the broken lead
What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the current from a primary structure?
a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable
b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable
c) No smaller than 18AWG
What is the bonding value between secondary structure?
a) 0.5
Ans b) 1 ohm
c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000
What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?
Ans a) Drag Strut
b) Drag Wire
c) Shock Absorber
What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?
Ans a) Increasing in lift
b) Going to the highest point
c) Increasing in drag
In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it have?
Ans a) 10% approximately
b) 100%
c) 50%
What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?
a) Polarity sensitive AC
Ans b) Polarity sensitive DC
c) Either
What does an INS calculate on power up?
a) Last Known Longitude
Ans b) Last Known Latitude
c) Last Known Longitude & Latitude
If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a helicopter what effect will an autopilot input have?
a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input
Ans b) The cyclic lever will not move
c) The flight director bars only will move
On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system pages?
Ans a) Through the ground test function
b) Through the Existing faults function
c) Through the Present Leg faults function
What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?
Ans a) The voltage activity in the servo amp
b) Trim tab position
c) Control surface position
What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-?
a) 62
Ans b) 42
c) 20
When using a bonding tester you
Ans a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points
b) use the 60ft lead for testing different points
c) use either leads for the testing
What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?
Ans a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades
b) Control of the speed of the rotor blades
c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades
What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect?
a) Disturbances
b) Velocity
Ans c) Pressure changes
With a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens when the control surface is moved?
a) It remains in the neutral position
b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface
c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface
What should be carried out prior to working on or near control surfaces?
Ans a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off
b) Pull & tag circuit breakers
c) Wear ear protection
Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of Vertical Speed by
Ans a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer
b) using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator
c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer
What is the glide slope frequency range?
a) 108 - 112 Mhz
b) 108 - 112 Ghz
Ans c) 329 - 335 Mhz
What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?
a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte
Ans b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage
Upwash on a helicopter would result in
a) increase in lift without an increase in power
b) decrease in lift
c) decrease in speed
What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed?
a) Bell sound
Ans b) Clacking sound
c) Horn sound
What is a slot used for?
Ans a) To reinforce the boundary layer
b) Increased angle of attack during approach
c) Increase the speed of the airflow
ADF is
a) Rho
b) Theta
c) Rho-Theta
A Boost Gauge reads
a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure
Ans b) absolute pressure
c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure
Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and
Ans a) relative air flow
b) tip path plane
c) horizontal axis
If cyclic is moved to the right
a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another
b) the rotor blades on the right flap down
c) the rotor blades on the left flap down
What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system
a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz
b) 2 - 6 GHz
Ans c) 100 KHz
What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack had an aileron going down?
a) Decrease stall speed
b) Increase stall speed
c) Have no effect on the stall speed
A high lift device is used for
Ans a) take off and landing
b) take off only
c) landing only
What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load bearing part of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls?
a) Frame
b) Bulkhead
c) Stringer
What is jitter used for in a DME transmission?
Ans a) To make an installation recognise it's own transmission
b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area
c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area
What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon?
a) 100
b) 50
c) 20
What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer?
a) Material of the coil
b) Material of the sensing element
c) Material of the indicator needle
After a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the helicopter would
a) roll back to the horizontal
b) continue to roll further
c) remain at the position that it had rolled to
How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems?
a) Spoiler to aileron
b) Spoiler to flap
c) Spoiler to elevator
What is audio clipping used for in voice communication?
a) To enable vowels to be heard better
b) To enable consonants to be heard better
c) To enable numbers to be heard better
The difference between transient droop and static droop is
Ans a) underswing
b) overswing
c) a hole in one
If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same level above sea level then
a) it will not need resetting and will read zero
b) it will display the airfield height above sea level
c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero
Capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected
a) by replacing capacitance probes
b) in parallel with capacitance probes
c) in series with capacitance probes
What is aileron droop?
a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow
b) One aileron lowered
c) The drop of ailerons with no hydraulics on
How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator controlled?
a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor
b) No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive
c) By a swashplate
What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?
a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation
b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation
c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of rotation
With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is
Ans a) semi rigid
b) rigid
c) fully articulating
Earths atmosphere is
a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen
b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen
c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen
A thermocouple
a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added
b) cannot be shortened
c) can be shortened
How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass?
a) Bellows and diaphragm
b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effect by temperature
c) Press relief valve
When installing an aerial ,added support is needed for the structure. This is achieved by
a) webs
b) outer plate
c) inner plate
What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency?
a) 60
b) 63
c) 1000
Relative airflow over a helicopter blade
a) increases at the tip
b) increases at the root
c) is unaffected by blade position
TCAS II is
a) 10 aircraft per square mile
b) 25 aircraft per square 5 miles
c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square
RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a
a) servomotor
b) loop voltage
c) Chinaman
FMC changes movement via
a) A/P actuator
b) flight control computer
c) straight to the actuator
Aircraft condition monitoring monitors
a) certain parameters
b) with a fault detector and tells master warning computer
c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC
A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has
a) full authority
b) 50% authority
Ans c) 10% authority
Stall warning will be given
Ans a) before stall
b) after stall
c) at stall
With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central maintenance function (CMF) is to
Ans a) log relevant maintenance data
b) transmits to the CMC
c) provides details of defect action
How are spoilers normally operated?
Ans a) Hydraulic actuator
b) Air pistons
c) Electrical motors
The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to permit the
Ans a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel system forces
b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change
c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered
A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause
a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time
b) one generator always comes on line before the other
Ans c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled
Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline battery
a) in the aircraft
b) when the battery is fully charged
Ans c) in the charging room only
When removing the load from a current transformer
Ans a) short the terminals
b) place a resistor across each terminal
c) leave the terminals open
Wing steady light must be visible through
a) 70 degrees
Ans b) 110 degrees
c) 180 degrees
On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins
a) a and b
b) c and d
Ans c) e and f
When paralleling two AC generators
Ans a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on in sequence ABC
b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in either ABC or CBA
c) they do not need to be in phase
The neutral shift sensor ensures that
Ans a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the stabiliser
b) after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator
c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevator
Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to
a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw
b) prevents slip and skid in yaw
Ans c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn
Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by
a) differentiating deviation signals
b) integrating deviation signals
Ans c) integrating course error signals
An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometer would cause
a) the pointer to read zero
b) the pointer to read mid scale
Ans c) the pointer to read full scale
The instantaneous VSI is designed to
Ans a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer
b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent
c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g
With a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession will
a) increase with a higher rotor speed
Ans b) decrease with a higher rotor speed
c) decrease with a lower rotor speed
A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor located about the gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
Ans b) longitudinal axis
c) vertical axis
The glideslope equipment operates in the
a) HF band
Ans b) UHF band
c) VHF band
The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
b) aircraft to overbank
Ans c) aircraft to remain in level flight
In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the navigation receiver are
Ans a) DC
b) AC
c) pulsed DC
Fuel quantity test set consists of
a) resistance decade
b) capacitance bridge
c) inductance decade
EICAS provides the following
a) engine parameters
Ans b) engine parameters and system warnings
c) engine warnings and engine parameters
The stabiliser is set to high setting when
Ans a) the flaps are moving down
b) the flap are moving up
c) the flap are moving up or down
An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the system
a) operational
b) passive
Ans c) simplex
DSR TK (desired track) means
Ans a) the bearing to capture the track
b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way points
c) distance left or right from desired track
In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from
Ans a) the barometric alt capsule
b) a rad alt output
c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height
In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is
a) FM Modulated
Ans b) AM Modulated
c) modulated with a 9960Hz
On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will
Ans a) retard the throttle
b) reverse thrust
c) control throttle for a IAS
If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the audio would relate to the
a) amplitude
b) frequency
Ans c) rate of frequency change
The normal axis on a helicopter is
Ans a) straight down the rotor head
b) at 90o to the C of G
c) at 90o to the rotor head
On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used
Ans a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX
b) make the audio signal clearer
c) an Americanisum for volume
A GPS aerial is polarised
a) vertically
b) horizontally
Ans c) right hand circular
Mach trim threshold are set by the
a) pilot
b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual
Ans c) manufacture
An O ring in a wave guide is used to
a) correct the VSWR
b) stop arcing between the wave guide
Ans c) stop moisture entering the wave guide
An RMI requires the following inputs:
Ans a) Heading and radio deviation
b) Course and radio deviation
c) Radio deviation only
The versine signal is used in the
Ans a) pitch channel only
b) roll channel only
c) pitch and roll channel
After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall. This is called
Ans a) transient droop
b) static droop
c) under swing
Loran C Uses
a) 16 KHz
b) 20 Mhz
Ans c) 100 Khz
The amount of travel of a series actuator is
Ans a) 50% of control movement
b) 10% of control movement
c) full control movement
GPS Telemetry consists of
a) week number and time label
b) satellite position information
c) 8 bits of preamble and position information
After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum flap at
Ans a) 90o
b) 180o
c) 0o
Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by
a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual
Ans b) JAR (OPS) M
c) BCAR A4-8
The rotor disc is
Ans a) the distance between tip to tip
b) the rotor head hub
c) the ground cushion
A DME is in auto stand by when
a) the ATC transponder is transmitting
Ans b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second
c) the TCAS is transmitting
The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90o What is a RMI display?
a) 90o
b) 0o
Ans c) 180o
The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal is lost the aircraft would
a) continue on flying on the localizer
Ans b) fly parallel to the localizer
c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading
Cat-2 autoland DH limits are
Ans a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft
b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.
c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.
Cat-1 autoland DH limits are
a) not less than 100 ft.
Ans b) not less than 200 ft.
c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.
When GA is initiated?
a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level
b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttles
Ans c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust
The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are
Ans a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.
b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.
c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation
Rollout guidance after touch down is by
a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering
b) visual indication and nosewheel steering
c) visual indication and rudder control
During autoland failure of one channel is detected
a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system.
Ans b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.
c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.
In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will
a) disconnect all channels
Ans b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach
c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach
During the flair mode the A/T throttle will
Ans a) retard throttle to idle.
b) disconnect autothrottle
c) select reverse thrust.
Roll out mode occurs
Ans a) after flare
b) before flare
c) at alert height
High and low signal to voter are
a) average
b) removed
c) added
Basic monitoring is function of
a) voting
Ans b) signal comparison
c) signal summing
In series rudder system
a) the pilot cannot input to the system
Ans b) the pilot can input to the system
c) yaw damping is only possible signal input
If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that
a) the indicator is not serviceable
b) the control system is out of trim
c) the system is trimmed
In parallel rudder system,
a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals
Ans b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement
c) The rudder pedals are disconnected
The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel amplifier. This means it is
a) AC
b) DC
Ans c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input
An increase in mach number will cause the
Ans a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
b) Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail plane
c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
If one FMS fails in a duel system
a) system operation will not be affected
b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
Ans c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer
To carry out FMS database update on FMS
Ans a) use database loader
b) insert new EPROM
c) insert new data on CDU
To know the valid database on FMS
a) perform bite check
Ans b) call up relevant page on CDU
c) call up relevant current status
Magnetic heading errors will be
Ans a) positive if easterly
b) negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly
What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?
a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading
Ans b) Move as the aircraft moves
c) Stay fixed on magnetic north
When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?
a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1
A helicopter autopilot uses
Ans a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold
b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
a) Height Deviation
b) Radio deviation
Ans c) Course deviation
What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence?
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
Ans b) Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare
When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has been selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
Ans b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?
a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
c) All are continuously available
If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?
a) In front of the lateral axis
Ans b) Right of the longitudinal axis
c) Left of the longitudinal axis
Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are
Ans a) lift, drag thrust, weight
b) lift, drag, thrust
c) weight, drag, lift
What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm?
Ans a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque rotor
b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter
c) Provide directional control
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