DGCA & EASA Module 13 - Aeroplane Aerodynamics Structure & Systems (B2) Question - Part -1

DGCA & EASA Module 13 - Aeroplane Aerodynamics Structure & Systems (B2) Que-Ans - Part -1

On a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?

a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed

b) Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground

Ans c) Tip vortex build-up during hover

What controls are used in response to PVD display?

Ans a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals

b) Control wheel

c) PVD control unit

DME transponder transmits on receipt

a) of any interrogation

b) of pilot input command request

Ans c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds

The best design of a MRB is where the C of P

Ans a) does not move

b) moves freely along the length of the blade

c) is insignificant

The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is

a) 16ft

b) 12ft

Ans c) 28ft

Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of

a) 12bits

b) 64bits

Ans c) 24bits

The rotor cone is formed by

a) blade alignment

Ans b) centrifugal force and lift

c) centrifugal force only

Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path

a) balance

b) restore

Ans c) align

Artificial feel is gained by using a

a) hydraulic damper

Ans b) spring bias unit

c) 'feel' generator

The ground run monitor presents information

Ans a) of distance to go and ground speed

b) duration of ground run

c) angle of crosstrack on ground

A mode C transponder

a) can be used for TCAS

Ans b) cannot be used for TCAS

c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only

The audio select panel allows the crew to

Ans a) transmit on one channel, listen on one

b) transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others

c) receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others

The crew select DH on

a) the altimeter

b) the DH annunciator panel

Ans c) the rad alt display

When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should consider

a) power requirements

Ans b) the speed of propagation of rad alt signal

c) the diameter of cables

GPS has

Ans a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4

b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6

c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9

Audio select panel voice switch

a) allows voice ident of DME

Ans b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal

c) disables DME voice ident

GPS frequency is

a) 1575 GHz

Ans b) 1575 MHz

c) 1525 MHz

Radio switches are normally

Ans a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C

b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C

c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C

On GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft

Ans a) systems is disabled

b) no traffic will be shown

c) all traffic produces aural alert

Mode S pulses. Which are used?

a) F1,F2,F4,F5

Ans b) s1,p1,p3,p4

c) s1,s2,p1,p2

In a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is

a) it amplifies output stages

Ans b) it improves signal to noise ratio

c) it couples noise factors

Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from

a) 115 volts from ac bus

b) 200 volts from ac bus

Ans c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units

The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving

a) one moving in direction of relative air flow

b) highest blade

Ans c) one moving forward into relative airflow

In air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director pitch command bar signifies

a) speed increase

Ans b) speed decrease

c) height decrease

Back beam is captured

Ans a) by manually selecting the back beam mode

b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode

c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode

With an insulation tester

a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air frame and short lead to item

b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item

Ans c) it does not matter which lead goes where

DME reply pulses are 63MHZ

a) higher

b) lower

Ans c) higher or lower

Flight director incompatible modes are

a) VOR and glideslope

b) heading and altitude hold

c) VOR and altitude hold

What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?

a) 110 nm

Ans b) 120 nm

c) 130 nm

GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?

a) c/a code only

b) c/a code and P code

c) P code only

Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a helicopter. The primary control method is

a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings

Ans b) design of engine and gearbox supports

c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft

Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from

a) rad alt to barometric

b) rad alt decrease

c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold

On power up, the IRS obtains position

a) latitude from previous position

b) longitude from previous position

c) latitude and longitude from previous position

Krueger flaps make up part of the

a) wing upper surface leading edge

b) wing lower surface trailing edge

Ans c) wing lower surface leading edge

Electronic stab trim switches are found on the

Ans a) control column

b) flight control panel

c) behind thrust levers

Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as

a) apparent A

b) real A

c) true A

Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to in

a) BCARs

Ans b) JAR OPS subpart M

c) maintenance manual

Carbon microphones require

Ans a) DC supply

b) AC supply

c) no supply

Microwave landing systems are modulated with

a) FM

b) phase drift keying

c) Manchester code

A CVR is found to be unserviceable

a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not combined

b) flights must not continue after four days

Ans c) flights must not continue after 72 hours

The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is

a) +/- 35 degrees

Ans b) +/-40 degrees

c) +/-60 degrees

The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates

a) 30 degrees

b) 90 degrees

c) 60 degrees

Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerous voltages by

a) non conductive paint

b) conductive paint

Ans c) earth primary conductors

In MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of

a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information

b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function

c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier

The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is

a) the y code

b) the p code

Ans c) the c/a code

The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video amplifier should be for good pulse shape are

a) wide and narrow

b) narrow and wide

c) wide and wide

On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost

a) the aircraft flies in a circle

Ans b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading

c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle

'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires

a) pitot only

b) static only

Ans c) pitot and static

When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply corrective rudder to

Ans a) the right

b) the left

c) the left with some aileron assistance

A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to

a) amount of aircraft disturbance

b) attitude of aircraft

Ans c) rate of yaw

In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed

a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons

b) in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons

Ans c) to assist the up going aileron

Glideslope deviation signals are

Ans a) DC polarity sensitive

b) AC phase sensitive

c) DC positive going only

A triplex system loses one channel

Ans a) pilot can continue with autoland

b) pilot can use auto approach

c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land

In an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged

Ans a) after reverse thrust is applied

b) after affixed period of the time after landing

c) manually after landing

What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon?

Ans a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll

b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll

c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll

Acceleration error produces

a) a false indication of left bank

Ans b) a false indication of right bank

c) a false indication of climb

The normal axis of a helicopter passes through

a) the centre of rotor disc

b) through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axis

c) a line parallel to rotor axis

Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100

a) Door

Ans b) Left wing

c) Right wing

Shock stall

a) is a flap down stall

Ans b) occurs at high speeds

c) occurs at low speeds

Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by

a) flapping

b) dragging

Ans c) centrifugal force

During a turn

a) left rudder to be used

b) right rudder to be used

Ans c) rudder to be maintained in centre position

Align light flashes during alignment

Ans a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off

b) It is attracting operators attention

c) It is indicating progress of alignment

During decent with power on in a helicopter

a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter

Ans b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter

c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter

To transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control surfaces, in a fly by wire system

Ans a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability

b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll

c) Synchros are used

The compensator in a fuel tank measures

a) specific gravity of fuel

Ans b) K value of fuel

c) fuel quantity

What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC coupling?entrifugal force

a) Heading and Deviation

Ans b) Course error and Deviation

c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation

In modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled by

Ans a) BPCU

b) PCDU (power control distribution unit)

c) SPCU

As you approach supersonic

Ans a) total drag is increased

b) lift is reduced

c) thrust is reduced

Range resolution is obtained by

a) High PRF

Ans b) Shorter pulse width

c) Shorter beam width

In weather radar, short range targets are missed by

Ans a) Larger pulse width

b) Larger beam width

c) Larger frequency

When the trailing edge flap is

a) The CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to nose up

b) The CP moves forward but the CG does not change

Ans c) CP move rearward

During take off if an input to auto throttle is fails

a) Auto throttle disengages

Ans b) Throttle hold is annunciated

c) Fail light illuminates

Flight director command bars indicate

Ans a) Direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred

b) Direction in which aircraft is flying

c) Direction in which the beacon is

Mode S has

a) 12 address bits

Ans b) 24 address bits

c) 36 address bits

If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are

a) In phase

b) Opposite phase

Ans c) Phase quadrature

RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is

a) 80 ft

b) 300 ft

c) 500 ft

In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable and RX cable each by 3 inch the total correction factor is

a) 3 inch

b) 6 inch

Ans c) 9 inch

If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester

a) tester reads zero

Ans b) tester reads full scale

c) tester would be zero centred

For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by

a) a thick metallic bonding strip

Ans b) a corrugated bonding jumper

c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends

What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and main earth system

a) 0.5 ohm

b) 1 ohm

Ans c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less

Mach trim in some aircraft assists

Ans a) longitudinal stability

b) lateral stability

c) vertical stability

In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed

Ans a) it must be installed on LH side

b) it must be installed on RH side

c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side

Main electric trim is controlled by

a) a switch on control wheel

b) a switch installed on centre pedestal panel

c)

If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter reading would be

a) higher mach number

Ans b) lower mach number

c) not effected

In a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective

a) one CDU blanks

b) both CDU blanks

Ans c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place

While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is leaking, the VSI would

a) indicate climb

Ans b) indicate decent

c) not be affected

In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check, which instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure?

a) ASI

b) VSI

c) Altimeter

The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass

a) is to rotate clockwise

b) is to rotate anticlockwise

c) It may be rotated either direction

Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized by

a) Having filters in power supply lines

b) Separating the affected and affecting cables

c) Putting the affected cable in a single conduit

During compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted in aligning the aircraft is

a) 1 degree

b) 5 degree

c) 10 degree

If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict, which aircraft changes the decision?

a) The one with the higher address

b) The one with the smaller address

c) Neither changes the decision

What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot?

Ans a) 10%

b) 50%

c) 100%

In helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement of the cockpit control is prevented by

a) synchros attached to the control

Ans b) a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control

c) a lock on the cockpit control

Helicopter blades are

a) highly cambered

b) reverse cambered

Ans c) Symmetrical

GPS antenna is

a) vertically polarized

b) horizontally polarized

c) lincomp polarization

The cyclic stick in an helicopter is

a) to the left

b) to the right

Ans c) in the centre

An autopilot computer

Ans a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR

b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS

c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS

What type of flap is this?

Ans a) Split flap

b) Fowler flap

c) Plain flap

Purpose of the bellcrank is to

a) transmit motion

Ans b) reverse direction and transmit motion

c) adjust friction

In an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by means of transformer coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is

a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer

b) to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure

c) to minimise power losses

DH is based on

a) aircraft characteristics

b) experience of the crew

c) RVR transmitted by ATC

In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is corrected by

a) mercury switches on the inner ring

b) mercury switches on the outer ring

c) flux valve slaving

Index error is

a) coefficient B

b) Coefficient P

Ans c) misalignment of compass lubber line

Helicopter derives its lift from

Ans a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it

b) rotor acts as a airscrew

c) air is pushed downward

A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called

a) rigid rotor

Ans b) semi rigid rotor

c) fully articulated rotor

Use of a diplexer in a receiver is

a) to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers

b) to amplify the RF signal

c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers

If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails

a) the failed system stops and it remains in this position

b) the pilot feels air loads higher than normal

Ans c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal

Doppler flag comes on when it receives

a) excessive ground clutter

b) no signal

c) excess signals

When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means

a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded

Ans b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot

c) maximum rudder deflection

Servo tabs

a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral

Ans b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface

c) provide artificial feel

Spring Tabs

a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral

Ans b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface

c) provide artificial feel

Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of

a) 20 degrees per second

b) 30 degrees per second

c) 15 degrees per second

Omega ground stations

Ans a) transmit pulses of CW

b) carrier modulated by three audio tones

c) series of CW

During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set

a) 1013.25 mb

b) sea level pressure

c) prevailing pressure

When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in contact

a) before the primary stops

Ans b) after the primary stops

c) at the same time as the primary stops

EICAS indicates

Ans a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions

b) engine performance only

c) engine performance and aircraft status

Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right

Ans a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right

b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in another

c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right

Magnetic heading errors will be

Ans a) positive if easterly

b) negative if easterly

c) negative if northerly

What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?

a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading

Ans b) It move as the aircraft moves

c) It stays fixed on magnetic north

When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

Ans a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1

b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1

c) If P2 is before P1

An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC

a) records all faults in volatile memory

Ans b) records all faults in non-volatile memory

A helicopter autopilot uses

Ans a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude hold

b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude hold

c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold

On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?

a) Radio deviation

b) Glideslope deviation

Ans c) Course deviation

Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence?

a) Flare, attitude, rollout

Ans b) Attitude, flare, rollout

c) Rollout, attitude, flare

When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has been selected?

a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft

b) When reached a desired altitude

c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?

a) No other pitch modes are available

b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam

c) All are continuously available

If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?

a) In front of the lateral axis

Ans b) Right of the longitudinal axis

c) Left of the longitudinal axis

A spring balance control system you

Ans a) can move the control surface on the ground

b) can move the control surface only by moving the tab

c) cannot move the control surface on the ground

Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene?

a) To prevent corrosion

Ans b) To prevent precipitation static

c) To provide lightning protection

What is a versine signal attenuated with?

a) Increase in airspeed

b) Increase in altitude

c) Decrease in altitude

If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you do with the control switch? Select it to

a) OFF

b) AM

c) either USB or LSB

How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3 pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?

a) 21 micro seconds

b) 8 micro seconds

c) 17 micro seconds

If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000 degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate?

a) TO

b) FROM

Ans c) Neither

What does the Radar contour button do?

Ans a) Alter the beam shape

b) Alter the transmitter power

c) Alter the video amplifier

A radar response takes 329 micro seconds how far away is the target?

a) 12 miles

b) 25 miles

c) 40 miles

The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at

a) 300 ft

b) the decrab phase

Ans c) start of flare phase

Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

Ans a) only when the autopilot is engaged

b) at any time after autoland has been engaged

c) at any time

The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiated after the selection of autoland

a) ILS localiser an IAS

b) IAS and glide slope

Ans c) IAS and steering or heading

If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the aeroplane will

a) increase speed

b) rotate nose up

Ans c) increase speed and rotate nose up

V NAV can be selected

a) alone

b) only if A/P and F/D selected

c) only if A/T selected

If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach

a) system degrade to CAT II

b) autoland is continued

Ans c) go-around is initiated

The order of autoland approach is

Ans a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE

b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE

c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD

Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to

a) assist with localiser tracking

b) assist with glide slope tracking

Ans c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down

An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that

a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected

b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected

c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of signal failure

The effective gain of the glide path receiver

a) is increased as the aircraft descends

b) remains constant as the aircraft descends

Ans c) is decreased as the aircraft descends

During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

a) pitch rate gyros

Ans b) radio altimeters

c) vertical accelerometers

An autopilot with two separate power supplies is

a) fail passive

Ans b) fail operational

c) fail redundant

On touchdown, auto pilot

Ans a) remains engaged ready for G/A

b) drives the throttles forward

c) disconnects after a short time

When will the decision height aural warning sound

a) at D.H.

Ans b) before D.H.

c) after D.H.

Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by

a) the area navigation system

Ans b)the runway localiser

c) the airfield marker beacon

The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from

Ans a) radio altimeter

b) the glide slope receiver

c) the localiser receiver

A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now,

a) fail passive

Ans b) fail operational

c) fail redundant

A fail passive system in the event of failure will

a) produce a significant out of trim condition

Ans b) produce no significant out of trim condition

c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically

A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a

a) simplex system

Ans b) duplex system

c) dual-dual system

The two parameters used for category classification are

a) radio height/runway visual range

b) localiser and glideslope

Ans c) decision height and runway visual range

What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode?

a) Decision height

Ans b) Radio altimeter

c) Glideslope signal

CAT-3b allows

a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR

Ans b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters

c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the order of 50 meters

The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to

a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim

Ans b) continue to control after any first fault

c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim

What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?

Ans a) Nose down bias

b) Nose up bias

c) No signal

What controls are used in response to the PVD displays?

a) Ailerons

b) Throttles

Ans c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals

The ground run monitor (GRM) presents

a) distance to go

Ans b) ground speed and distance to go

c) take off speed and distance to go

For a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be moved to correct the pitch movement?

a) Lateral

Ans b) Longitudinal

c) Normal

Versine is used in which channel?

Ans a) Pitch

b) Roll

c) Yaw

With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director engaged, a down command means your speed has

a) increased

Ans b) decreased

c) is the same

A Master Warning is issued when

Ans a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs

b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs

c) engine fire and generator trip occurs

The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is

Ans a) 50 milliohms

b) 1 ohms

c) 1M - 100,000 ohms

In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft

a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors

Ans b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead

c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead

Sparking in a generator would be caused by

Ans a) low spring tension

b) bedding of brushes

c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis

Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRF installations?

Ans a) Visual inspections

b) Insulation testing

c) CMC fault indications

What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which are open circuit?

a) Short the terminals together

b) Put a set resistance across the terminals

Ans c) Leave the terminals open circuit

An RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is showing a course of 000, if the course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?

a) Move left

b) Move right

c) Moves left then hard right

If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will totally disconnect if it is a

a) Triplex system

b) Duplex system

Ans c) Simplex system

A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk of high potential differences would be

Ans a) painted in a conductive paint

b) painted in a non-conductive paint

c) bonded to the primary structure

The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is

Ans a) 50 ohms

b) 20 ohms

c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively

TAS uses which inputs

a) Pitot and Static

b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature

Ans c) Mach and Temp

Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?

a) On the wing

b) Under the Fuselage

Ans c) Either side of the Fuselage

With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will happen to the angle of attack?

Ans a) Tend to increase

b) Tend to decrease

c) Stay the same

If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder

a) remains at the neutral position

b) controls the aircraft in trim

c) remains in the previous position

A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause

a) poor channel selectivity

b) poor audio output

c) poor volume output

The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use which inputs to issue a warning?

a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter

Ans b) A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft

c) A low range altimeter and GPS

Alert Height is when

a) a decision of whether to land is made

Ans b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made

c) an alert of the ground proximity is made

When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done?

a) Placards in the cockpit

Ans b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding

c) Crew retraining

If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was found

a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water

b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found

c) a leak test is never required

TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of

Ans a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively

b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively

c) 1090 MHz

When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus

a) 1 degree

Ans b) 3 degree

c) 5 degree

The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of

a) 000

Ans b) 045

c) 090

Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced

a) DC generators

Ans b) AC generators

c) AC & DC generators

A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the

Ans a) spoiler

b) leading edge flaps

c) trailing edge flaps

Runway turn of lights have a beam width of

a) 10 degree

b) 110 degree

Ans c) 50 degree

Stall warning will be given at speeds

Ans a) that are higher than stall speed

b) that are lower than stall speed

c) at the actual stall speed

When a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft?

a) Turning on and off the NAV lights

Ans b) Turning off the anti-collision lights

c) Flashing the landing light

An aircraft will capture the auto land system at

Ans a) 1500 ft

b) 2500 ft

c) 3500 ft

FADEC system gets its power supply from

a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated Generator

Ans b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated Generator

c) emergency Batt bus

Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to

Ans a) excessive charging current

b) insufficient charging current

c) excessive charging voltage

An autopilot interlock circuit is to

a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists

b) disconnect the system if a fault appears

Ans c) both a & b

A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a

a) green colour

Ans b) amber

c) red colour

The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is

a) 131.55

Ans b) 121.5

c) 118.00

In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out

a) on the ground only

b) continuously when the systems are working

c) only in the air

The electrical A/H has a movement of

a) 85 degree in pitch and roll

b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch

Ans c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch

When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to

Ans a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power

b) remove/disconnect electrical power

c) pull the appropriate CB

Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in

a) CAAIPs

b) Maintenance Manual

Ans c) JAR OPS

When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what is the distance that VHF Com cover?

a) 100 nm

Ans b) 120 nm

c) 140 nm

When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the aircraft is at the

a) 180 degree radial

Ans b) 090 degree radial

c) 275 degree radial

A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is

Ans a) an accelerometer

b) a gyroscope

c) a tachogenerator

The units of vibration are measured in

a) phons

b) decibels

Ans c) relative amplitude

A fuel flow system can be adjusted for

a) maximum flow rate

b) minimum flow rate

c) cannot be adjusted

Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between

Ans a) true north and magnetic north

b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading

c) the compass north and magnetic north

GPWS mode 1 is excessive

a) terrain closure

b) rate of ascent

Ans c) rate of descent

How many bits make up the mode "S" address

a) 12

b) 24

c) 36

The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the

Ans a) square of the speed

b) square root of the speed

c) cube root of the speed

Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of

Ans a) capsule elasticity

b) capsule shape

c) non linear pressure/height relationship

The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system would cause

a) aircraft to underbank

Ans b) aircraft to overbank

c) aircraft to remain in level flight

The doppler VOR beacon reference signal

Ans a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency

b) amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency

c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency

During flare mode autothrottle will

Ans a) retard throttles to idle

b) disconnect autothrottle

c) select reverse thrust

A CSD is monitored for

a) low temp and high oil pressure

Ans b) high temp and low oil pressure

As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the reward travelling blades pitch angle?

Ans a) Increases

b) Decreases

c) No change

In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected

a) it is centralized by a spring

b) its control is maintained by electric trim

What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes?

a) 115v ac

b) 200v ac

Ans c) High voltage stepped up

When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the output reading is

Ans a) zero

b) full scale deflection

c) centre scale

In a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would

a) increase capacitive reactance

Ans b) increase capacitance

c) decrease capacitance

Float fuel gauge system is

a) adjusted when tanks are full

b) adjusted when tanks are empty

c) cannot be adjusted

A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are

Ans a) bulkheads

b) longerons

c) frame

Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by

Ans a) excessive electrical loading

b) high charge current

c) low charge current

With engine stopped, EPR indicator read slightly above 1.

a) This is normal

b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted

c) You would adjust the Tx

To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would carry out

a) damping and periodicity checks

Ans b) damping and pivot friction check

c) damping and alignment checks

The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after charging shows substantially lower value.

a) Cell is defective

b) You top up the cell with distilled water

c) You replace the cell

Suppressor line is required for

a) ATC and DME only

b) TCAs only

Ans c) all L band equipments including TCAS

Differential GPS requires

a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters

b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters

c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitters

GPS has

a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits

b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits

c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits

When the captain calls attendant

a) a high low chine and pink light comes on

b) a low chine and blue light comes on

c) a high chine and pink light comes on

In ACRS, if an upcoming message is received

a) a designated light comes on

b) a selcall light along with chine comes on

c) a chime sounds in the cockpit

A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail

a) the authority of elevators not effected

Ans b) the up movement authority is effected

c) the down movement authority is effected

If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost

a) aircraft continues to descent with an accumulating drift

Ans b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway

c) aircraft moves in a circle

IDG output voltage

a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant.

Ans b) voltage is regulated by GCU

c) voltage is regulated by IDG

The over-station sensor is activated by

a) radio deviation signal

Ans b) rate of radio deviation signal

c) deviation and course error

When moving the control column

Ans a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal

b) sensor located along the control run produces a signal

c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal

In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown

a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail plane down force

b) there is an increases tail plane up-force

Ans c) there is an increased tailplane down-force

Equivalent airspeed is

a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE

b) rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility

Ans c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility

Flaps at landing position

a) decrease take off and landing speed

b) decrease take off speed

Ans c) decrease landing speed

Lowering of the flaps

Ans a) increases drag and lift

b) increases drag

c) increases lift

Pushing the left rudder pedal

Ans a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise

b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise

c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing

What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF?

a) Check of aircraft structure

b) Bonding and insulation tests

Ans c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment

What do ruddervators do?

Ans a) Control pitch and yaw

b) Control pitch and roll

c) Control yaw and roll

On a helicopter what is dragging?

a) Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges

Ans b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge

c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground

What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?

a) Elevators

b) Ailerons

Ans c) Elevons

If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add

Ans a) an internal doubler

b) external doubler

c) an intercostals

What does a trim tab do?

Ans a) Eases control loading for pilot

b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit

c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot

How does a balance tab move?

a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to

b) In the same direction a small amount

Ans c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is attached to

Satellite transmits updates on every

a) 13th orbit

b) 9th orbit

c) 2nd orbit

Galley and cabin lighting operate on

a) DC bus

b) AC bus

Ans c) GND services

Buffer amp on transmitter is between

a) modulator and power amp

Ans b) local oscillator and modulator

c) local oscillator and demodulator

Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer points to

a) 0

b) 090

Ans c) 180

What is power at pulse?

a) Peak power

b) Pulsed power

c) Average power

What frequency increases radar relative range

a) Long

Ans b) Short

c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change

If radar pulse is reduced there is

a) increased relative range

b) reduced relative range

Ans c) no effect

If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial, resistance would be

a) 80 ohm

b) 160 ohm

c) 0 ohm

Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you

Ans a) 3 ft error

b) 6ft error

c) 12 foot error

Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the

a) widest width

Ans b) narrowest width

c) number of joints and bends

Which side of the pilot is the collective?

Ans a) Left

b) Right

c) In-between legs

What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?

Ans a) Increases lift

b) No effect

c) Increases thrust

What damps vibrations on a helicopter?

a) Pfifer damper

b) Swashplate

c) Scissor levers

What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?

Ans a) Weight of blade

b) Engine and gearbox

c) Fineness ratio

Relative velocity of rotor

Ans a) increases at fwd travelling blade

b) increases at retreating blade

c) is equal for all blades

When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating ceiling?

a) Increase

Ans b) Decrease

c) No effect

How many satellites required for GNS?

a) 8

Ans b) 4

c) 6 90^o apart

If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently low. Battery needs

a) topping up with distilled water

b) replacing

Ans c) recharging

What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?

Ans a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit

b) No effect

c) Electrical systems shut down

In MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway

a) 20 degrees

b) 15 degrees

c) 10 degrees

A full operational autopilot system will ensure that

a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any failure is detected

b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot if any failure is detected

Ans c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a single failure

What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?

a) QDH

Ans b) QDM

c) QDR

During an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by

a) pitch rate gyros

Ans b) radio altimeters

c) vertical accelerometers

The aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from

a) roll errors

b) localiser deviation errors

Ans c) heading errors

An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control

a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure

b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate

Ans c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power setting

Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated

a) only when autopilot is engaged

Ans b) after glideslope capture

c) at any time

The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known as the

Ans a) decision height

b) intercept height

c) alert height

The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is

a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference

b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters

Ans c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200 meters

Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by

a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office

b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway

Ans c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway

A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have

a) a decision height of about 50 feet

Ans b) no decision height

c) a decision height depending upon the RVR

The purpose of a yaw damper is to

a) assist the aerodynamic response

b) produce a co-ordinated turn

Ans c) block the Dutch roll frequency

In a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system will disconnect

a) all channels

Ans b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland

c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach

Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by

a) differentiating deviation signal

b) integrating deviation signal

Ans c) integrating course error

With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot modes are

a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD

Ans b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM

c) V/S and ALT ARM

Which modes are incompatible

a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD

Ans b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD

c) HDG + V/S HOLD

To carry out an autopilot check first

a) switch off all power

Ans b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed

c) switch on NAV receivers

FAIL PASSIVE means

a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system

Ans b) system self monitors, failure does affect system

c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue

autoland

On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft would

a) fly a circle

b) increase its drift angle

Ans c) fly parallel to the beam

The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system are laid down in

Ans a) JAR AWO

b) CAIPs

c) BCARs

VOR capture can be determined by

a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the selected radial

Ans b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radio deviation signals

c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from the selected radial

Versine is generated by

a) torque receiver synchros

Ans b) synchros resolvers

c) control synchro transformers

Automatic trim is used to

Ans a) maintain level flight

b) prevents standing loads on the elevator

c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron

An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by

a) measured radio deviation

Ans b) rate of change of radio deviation

c) rate of change of course

Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure

a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement

Ans b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement

c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged

In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are used for

Ans a) maintaining a computed EPR

b) controlling to a maximum thrust

c) correction minor speed deviations

The GA mode is usually initiated by

a) pressing a button on the control wheel

Ans b) pressing a button on thrust levers

c) making a selection on the mode control panel

On selection of the Turbulence Mode

a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation

b) the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced

Ans c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe

To know the valid data base on the FMS

a) perform a BITE check

Ans b) call up the relevant page on the CDU

c) call up the relevant current status

Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by

Ans a) yaw rate gyro signals

b) aileron to rudder crossfeed

c) aileron to elevator crossfeed

A yaw damper system operates on

a) all yaw frequencies

b) only mid range frequencies

Ans c) low range frequencies

A GCR will trip if what is detected?

a) Under frequency and over frequency

b) Over frequency and under current

c) Over current and over frequency

What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables?

a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms

b) 25 ohms

Ans c) 50 ohms

To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar receiver)

a) scan at a lower rate

b) use shorter bursts

c) use longer bursts

In a vibrator type voltage regulator

Ans a) the resistor is in series with the field

b) parallel with the field

c) in series with the voltage coil

Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft

Ans a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4

b) JAR OPS

c) Maintenance Manual

If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative

a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed

b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/ shut off

Ans c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can be fixed

The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have?

a) 180 degrees

b) 120 degrees

Ans c) 140 degrees

When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be bedded first, this can be done

Ans a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft

b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the bench

c) at the manufacturers only

What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative density of a lead acid battery?

Ans a) The temperature

b) The ambient pressure

c) The ambient humidity

The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided

Ans a) to prevent precipitation static build up

b) to prevent the wire from corroding

c) to prevent the wire from chafing

Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by

a) the use of special conductive paint

Ans b) bonding strips

c) special conducting or non-conducting grease

An elevator tab moves down

Ans a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy

b) to make the nose go down

c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy

The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking

Ans a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed

b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same

c) any single cell as all the others will be the same

In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or - feet

a) 400ft

b) 160ft

c) 80ft

In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by using

a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfaces

Ans b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces

c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces

In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed and provided by

a) the central warning computer (CWC)

b) the electronic interface units (EIU)

Ans c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS)

What type of memory do CMCs have?

a) Volatile

Ans b) Non-volatile

c) Hard

What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?

a) To provide a balance for CofG

Ans b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor

c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor

An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true airspeed?

Ans a) Higher than its IAS

b) Lower than its IAS

c) The same as its IAS

The stall margin is controlled by

Ans a) EPR limits

b) speed bug cursor

c) angle of attack and flap position

When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle

a) only with the Flight Director selected

b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS) engaged

Ans c) only after take off

A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of

a) electronic engine control unit only

Ans b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors

c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter

A FADEC system does not have the following system?

a) An automatic starting capability

b) Control of thrust reverser operation

Ans c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers

Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?

a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare

Ans b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare

c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold

The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know as the

Ans a) decision height

b) intercept height

c) alert height

The ICAO weather category 3A is

a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without external reference

b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m

Ans c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of 200m

A category 11 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of

a) 15 m

Ans b) 60 m

c) 0 m

The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point

Ans a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal

b) the localiser and glide path signals cross each other

c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide path signals

The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal accidents per landing greater than

a) 1 x 10-6

Ans b) 1 x 10-7

c) 1 x 10-8

Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the

a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II

b) ground radio aids must be at CAT III

Ans c) ILS system must be working

For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an autothrottle system is

a) mandatory

b) a matter of choice for the operator

c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed

The overshoot or go around mode is initiated

a) automatically

b) by a selector on the throttle control panel

Ans c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum